Edward Feser, Is self-ownership axiomatic?

this hand of me --> as part is of a whole

"of" does not have the same meaning(?) when it is used in the following:
this pencil of me --> something that belongs to me, or is my property

Now even if I have dominion over both my body and over tools (and other things), it may not be that the extent of my dominion (what I am able to do with something) is the same for both. Is dominion before law? Or is it after? It seems to me that the notion of dominion must be defined in terms of the law (both the natural law and positive law).