Thursday, June 25, 2009

Are the unitive and procreative ends of marriage really "co-equal"? Can we explain the traditional precept of the Church to marry a Catholic if they are? Or is this precept better understood of the procreative end is the primary end, and the unitive secondary to it? That is to say, we should marry someone Catholic for the sake of the children and their proper upbringing as Catholics and so on. After all, Catholics have an obligation to raise their children as Catholics, even if their spouse is not Catholic.

3 comments:

Johannes said...

Hi Papabear. You might want to have a look at

http://athanasiuscm.blogspot.com/2008/08/humane-vitae-40-years.html

Scroll to "Pope Pius XII wrote", quoting an address to participants in the Conference of the Italian Catholic Union of Obstetricians (October 29, 1951).

papabear said...

Thank you for the link. Pius XII and preconciliar Thomists made the same point--it is to their writings that I was alluding. However many today would want to argue that the two ends are co-equal, based on their (erroneous?) interpretation of HV.

papabear said...

A confusion possibly of the ends of marriage with the ends of the sex act.