At least Aquinas and the scholastics gave a definition of hope and distinguished it from charity. In order to answer the question whether we can have the theological virtue of hope for the salvation of all, we must first define hope and determine whether it is the same as desire or wishing or is a kind of desire or wishing. Do we love all men (with charity) and thus desire their salvation? If yes, then can we not hope for their salvation as well?
"Universalist" hope is not the same as the belief that all will be saved.
Fr. Al Kimel: May We Only Wish for the Salvation of All?
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