1 Corinthians 14:34
Sometimes this is interpreted as saying that woman should not teach within the church building, or temple. But if St. Paul meant the home temple (or building) where Christians gathered to worship or to celebrate the liturgy or Eucharist, would he have not used that word instead of
ekklésia, assembly, congregation, or "Church"? If that is the case, it would not matter if the Church is assembled in the temple or outside of the temple, a woman should be silent. And this would apply to any instantiation of the Church, including in a academic setting?
Unless St. Paul is just bound by the customs of his time, of course...
But that sort of misreading of the Church by English-speakers who do not know Greek and do not know the context well is easily cleared away. One could object, rather, that St. Paul is talking about the assembly of Christians for worship. Even though he is touching upon problems with the Church of Corinth, especially upon disorder during worship and prayer (and not necessarily just the Eucharist), would worship and prayer be the only reason for Christians to assemble? And would their time of assembly be a mix of prayer/worship, teaching, listening to readings, and so on? Would instruction proper to a formal master/disciple relationship, as opposed to the informal giving of information or doctrine, have taken place within the assembly or outside of the assembly?
Is it so definitively clear that St. Paul is referring only to the assemblies of Christians for prayer and worship? Or can a reading that He is referring to any manifestation of the Church, ekklēsía, including assemblies for prayer and worship, be justified?
Any mention of the authority of the husband?
